Paul -- you posted a good commentary on my problematic verses. I think I am
guilty, even while trying to be a reductionist, of expanding the question
set too much. So I will try once more.
You wrote: "This authority was often used in the best interests of the
daughters and even included consideration of their desires, but it could
also be used as Caleb, the man of faith, used it: to offer his daughter in
marriage to any man who would spearhead an attack on Kiriath-sepher. Yet,
even in the latter case, are we really justified in saying the daughter
married off without any choice was "raped"? I don't think Caleb's daughter
(or the captive woman) thought of it
She probably did not. But that was not my point. My point was twofold:
1. Did God see women in those days as property?
2. Does he see women as property today?
The verses I cited seem to convey a "yes" answer to #1.
Various NT verses seem to convey a "no" answer to #2.
I am unable to reconcile these two except by assuming it was Moses, not God,
speaking in those verses.
As Terry (and others) pointed out, an "I don't know" is an OK answer. "I
will not think about it anymore but accept someone else's answer" is not OK.
At least not to me.
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