Re: deception in perception

From: Stuart d Kirkley (
Date: Thu Jul 25 2002 - 21:45:22 EDT

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      Thank you Robert,

    It is interesting how that definition, 'to slander someone', ties in
    with the message I was conveying about how we often too quickly jump
    to (incorrect) conclusions about the meaning of certain posts.

    I do think that the contraction I provided, that devil = do evil, is
    pertinent also, even if it is not the true delineation of the word.

    Thanks again,

    On Thu, 25 Jul 2002 00:20:47
      Robert Schneider wrote:
    >Stuart writes:
    >> Recently, it occurred to me that the word 'devil' is probably a
    >> contraction of 'do evil' = d'evil =devil. I wonder if anyone has any
    >> further hard information that might support this.
    >Etymology from Bob the Classics Prof. (courtesy of Webster's Third College
    > "devil" <ME "devel" <OE "deofol" < LL(E) [Late Latin, Ecclesiastical]
    >"diabolus" <Gr "diabolos," n. from v. "diaballein," "to slander," lit., "to
    >throw across." The Gr. form appears in both the LXX, where it translates
    >Hebr. "Satan," and the NT, whence it becomes the common term used in both
    >Greek and Latin patristic literature.
    > "Diabolos" is one of the many words in Greek that were latinized as
    >Greek-speaking Gentile Christianity became established in the Latin-speaking
    >portions of the Roman Empire. This was probably due in large part to the
    >fact that the Liturgy in those portions was originally celebrated in Greek
    >(in Rome Greek was the language of worship as late as the 3rd c.) and only
    >later rendered into Latin. That is why so many words in Church Latin (e.g.,
    >episcopus, ecclesia, baptismum) are simply transliterations of Greek words.
    > So, when someone slanders us and we respond by saying, "You devil!" we
    >are using the term correctly.

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